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The Most Incredible Prophecy
- Thread starter Kinana
- Start date
Thank you,Brother Kinana,Christ is in China
末世神道成肉身在中国作工的意义
上帝在中国隐秘降临作工
God's Hidden Advent in Communist China
https://www.hidden-advent.org/sm/
Christ Has Returned To The Earth In The Flesh...
He Is Almighty God, Christ Of The Endtimes, The WORD Became Flesh The Second Time In China
http://josephalmighty.multiply.com/
waaaah...........really ah ?
and i thought Jesus was created by Roman emperor at Council of Nicea.................
and i thought Jesus was created by Roman emperor at Council of Nicea.................
waaaah...........really ah ?
and i thought Jesus was created by Roman emperor at Council of Nicea.................
Do you have any proofs to back up your statement?
go read up lah..................just liek there's no historical proof that Jesus ever existed..................even the Pope said that..........
the Romans are very detailed in their record of their history...................not a single word was recorded of Jesus or his disciples.............even by famous historians that were in the places that Jesus supposedly preached................
Debunking the prophecy in Isaiah Chapter 53
The Jewish sages teach that "whoever saves a single Jewish soul is considered as if he had saved an entire world." Isaiah 53 is about someone who dies for the sins of others. People may have seen Jesus die, but did anyone see him die as an atonement for the sins of others? No!
Only if you already accept the New Testament teaching that his death had a non-visible, spiritual significance can you than go back to Isaiah and say, "see - the Prophet predicted what I already believe." Isaiah 53, then, is in reality no "proof" at all, but rather a contrived confirmation for someone who has already chosen Christianity.
Jesus' own disciples didn't view Isaiah 53 as a messianic prophecy. For example, after Peter identifies Jesus as the Messiah (Matt. 16:16), he is informed that Jesus will be killed (Matt. 16:21). His response: "God forbid it, lord! This shall never happen to you" (Mattew 16:22). See, also, Mark 9:31-32; Mark 16:10-11; John. 20:9. Even Jesus didn't see Isaiah 53 as crucial to his messianic claims - why else did he call the Jews children of the devil for not believing in him before the alleged resurrection (John 8:39-47)? And why did he later request that God "remove this cup from me" (Mark. 14:36) - didn't he know that a "removal of the cup" would violate the gentile understanding of Isaiah 53?
Mark 14:36 “Abba! Father, all things are possible for you! Remove this cup from me! But no, not what I want; rather, what you want.” (3 times)
Jesus begged God, His Father, to "let this cup pass from me" so to be saved.
Where is it indicated either in Isaiah 53 or anywhere else in OT that you must believe in this "Messiah" to get the benefits?
Chapter 53 is actually a continuation of the prophecy which begins at 52:13:
Look at the setting in which Isaiah 53 occurs. Earlier on in Isaiah, God had predicted exile and calamity for the Jewish people. Chapter 53, however, occurs in the midst of Isaiah's "Messages of Consolation", which tell of the restoration of Israel to a position of prominence and a vindication of their status as God's chosen people. In chapter 52, for example, Israel is described as "oppressed without cause" (v.4) and "taken away" (v.5), yet God promises a brighter future ahead, one in which Israel will again prosper and be redeemed in the sight of all the nations (v.1-3, 8-12).
Chapter 54 further elaborates upon the redemption which awaits the nation of Israel. Following immediately after chapter 53's promise of a reward for God's servant in return for all of its suffering (53:10-12), chapter 54 describes an unequivocally joyous fate for the Jewish people. Speaking clearly of the Jewish people and their exalted status (even according to all Christian commentaries), chapter 54 ends as follows: "`This is the heritage of the servants of the Lord and their vindication is from Me,' declares the Lord."
52:15 - 53:1 "So shall he (the servant) startle many nations, the kings will stand speechless; For that which had not been told them they shall see and that which they had not heard shall they ponder. Who would believe what we have heard?" Quite clearly, the nations and their kings will be amazed at what happens to the "servant of the Lord," and they will say "who would believe what we have heard?". 52:15 tells us explicitly that it is the nations of the world, the gentiles, who are doing the talking in Isaiah 53. See, also, Micah 7:12-17, which speaks of the nations' astonishment when the Jewish people again blossom in the Messianic age.
53:1 "And to whom has the arm of the Lird been revealed?" In Isaiah, and throughout our Scriptures, God's "arm" refers to the physical redemption of the Jewish people from the oppression of other nations (see, e.g., Isa. 52:8-12; Isa. 63:12; Deut. 4:34; Deut. 7:19; Ps. 44:3).
53:3 "Despised and rejected of men." While this is clearly applicable to Israel (see Isa. 60:15; Ps. 44:13-14), it cannot be reconciled with the New Testament account of Jesus, a man who was supposedly "praised by all" (Luke. 4:14-15) and followed by multitudes (Mattew 4:25), who would later acclaim him as a prophet upon his triumphal entry into Jerusalem (Mattew. 21:9-11). Even as he was taken to be crucified, a multitude bemoaned his fate (Luke 23:27). Jesus had to be taken by stealth, as the rulers feared "a riot of the people" (Mark 14:1-2).
The Jewish sages teach that "whoever saves a single Jewish soul is considered as if he had saved an entire world." Isaiah 53 is about someone who dies for the sins of others. People may have seen Jesus die, but did anyone see him die as an atonement for the sins of others? No!
Only if you already accept the New Testament teaching that his death had a non-visible, spiritual significance can you than go back to Isaiah and say, "see - the Prophet predicted what I already believe." Isaiah 53, then, is in reality no "proof" at all, but rather a contrived confirmation for someone who has already chosen Christianity.
Jesus' own disciples didn't view Isaiah 53 as a messianic prophecy. For example, after Peter identifies Jesus as the Messiah (Matt. 16:16), he is informed that Jesus will be killed (Matt. 16:21). His response: "God forbid it, lord! This shall never happen to you" (Mattew 16:22). See, also, Mark 9:31-32; Mark 16:10-11; John. 20:9. Even Jesus didn't see Isaiah 53 as crucial to his messianic claims - why else did he call the Jews children of the devil for not believing in him before the alleged resurrection (John 8:39-47)? And why did he later request that God "remove this cup from me" (Mark. 14:36) - didn't he know that a "removal of the cup" would violate the gentile understanding of Isaiah 53?
Mark 14:36 “Abba! Father, all things are possible for you! Remove this cup from me! But no, not what I want; rather, what you want.” (3 times)
Jesus begged God, His Father, to "let this cup pass from me" so to be saved.
Where is it indicated either in Isaiah 53 or anywhere else in OT that you must believe in this "Messiah" to get the benefits?
Chapter 53 is actually a continuation of the prophecy which begins at 52:13:
Look at the setting in which Isaiah 53 occurs. Earlier on in Isaiah, God had predicted exile and calamity for the Jewish people. Chapter 53, however, occurs in the midst of Isaiah's "Messages of Consolation", which tell of the restoration of Israel to a position of prominence and a vindication of their status as God's chosen people. In chapter 52, for example, Israel is described as "oppressed without cause" (v.4) and "taken away" (v.5), yet God promises a brighter future ahead, one in which Israel will again prosper and be redeemed in the sight of all the nations (v.1-3, 8-12).
Chapter 54 further elaborates upon the redemption which awaits the nation of Israel. Following immediately after chapter 53's promise of a reward for God's servant in return for all of its suffering (53:10-12), chapter 54 describes an unequivocally joyous fate for the Jewish people. Speaking clearly of the Jewish people and their exalted status (even according to all Christian commentaries), chapter 54 ends as follows: "`This is the heritage of the servants of the Lord and their vindication is from Me,' declares the Lord."
52:15 - 53:1 "So shall he (the servant) startle many nations, the kings will stand speechless; For that which had not been told them they shall see and that which they had not heard shall they ponder. Who would believe what we have heard?" Quite clearly, the nations and their kings will be amazed at what happens to the "servant of the Lord," and they will say "who would believe what we have heard?". 52:15 tells us explicitly that it is the nations of the world, the gentiles, who are doing the talking in Isaiah 53. See, also, Micah 7:12-17, which speaks of the nations' astonishment when the Jewish people again blossom in the Messianic age.
53:1 "And to whom has the arm of the Lird been revealed?" In Isaiah, and throughout our Scriptures, God's "arm" refers to the physical redemption of the Jewish people from the oppression of other nations (see, e.g., Isa. 52:8-12; Isa. 63:12; Deut. 4:34; Deut. 7:19; Ps. 44:3).
53:3 "Despised and rejected of men." While this is clearly applicable to Israel (see Isa. 60:15; Ps. 44:13-14), it cannot be reconciled with the New Testament account of Jesus, a man who was supposedly "praised by all" (Luke. 4:14-15) and followed by multitudes (Mattew 4:25), who would later acclaim him as a prophet upon his triumphal entry into Jerusalem (Mattew. 21:9-11). Even as he was taken to be crucified, a multitude bemoaned his fate (Luke 23:27). Jesus had to be taken by stealth, as the rulers feared "a riot of the people" (Mark 14:1-2).
A thousand year before Jesus's Cruxificaxion, there is a very interesting verse recorded in the old testament Psalm 22:1 King David: "My God, My God, why hast Thou forsaken me?".
What did Jesus verbalise a thousand year later during his 'painful' cruxificaxion?
Let examine the words "My God, My God, why hast Thou forsaken Me?"(See the similarity!)
This is one of the evidences that cruxifixion was plagiarized by gospel maker after more than a century later.
Gospel writers who obviously had previous knowledge of the OT and would have known exactly what these "prophecies" were....this is no more "prophetic" than me login into this forum and read this thread and then predicting I'll be writing a reply soon..
So these are postdictions and not prophecies.
What did Jesus verbalise a thousand year later during his 'painful' cruxificaxion?
Let examine the words "My God, My God, why hast Thou forsaken Me?"(See the similarity!)
This is one of the evidences that cruxifixion was plagiarized by gospel maker after more than a century later.
Gospel writers who obviously had previous knowledge of the OT and would have known exactly what these "prophecies" were....this is no more "prophetic" than me login into this forum and read this thread and then predicting I'll be writing a reply soon..
So these are postdictions and not prophecies.
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According to Jewish scripture and belief, the true Messiah (pronounced "moshiach" in Hebrew) must meet the following requirements.
He must:
- Be an observant Jewish man descended from the house of King David
- Be an ordinary human being (as opposed to the Son of God)
- Bring peace to the world
- Gather all Jews back into Israel
- Rebuild the ancient Temple in Jerusalem
- Unite humanity in the worship of the Jewish God and Torah observance
Which of the above did Jesus fullfil? Maybe only point 2 and non of the rest.
He must:
- Be an observant Jewish man descended from the house of King David
- Be an ordinary human being (as opposed to the Son of God)
- Bring peace to the world
- Gather all Jews back into Israel
- Rebuild the ancient Temple in Jerusalem
- Unite humanity in the worship of the Jewish God and Torah observance
Which of the above did Jesus fullfil? Maybe only point 2 and non of the rest.
Looks like you didn't even watch the documentary at all before you posted.
Debunking the prophecy in Zechariah 9:9 (4mins)
“Rejoice greatly, Daughter of Zion!
Shout Aloud, O Daughter Jerusalem!
See, your king comes to you,
righteous and victorious,
lowly and riding on a donkey,
on a colt, the foal of a donkey.”
The Matthew author is the most keen to match events to a prophecy, even to the extent that he describes Jesus riding two animals, an ass and a colt. (This passage later led to the observation that Jesus had entered Jerusalem "like a circus clown on the back of two donkeys.)The circus act seems to have arisen because whoever wrote the book of Matthew followed the Greek version of the scriptures too literally. The original Jewish text employed parallelism, a poetic technique using repetition. In other words, the original Hebrew text envisaged only one animal. The Matthew author is thus caught in the act of arranging New Testament events to match his faulty understanding of the Old Testament.
Another important point here is that the prophecy concerns not the heavenly Christ, but an earthly King of the Jews. Also, as usual, the Matthew author's quotation is not exact.
“Rejoice greatly, Daughter of Zion!
Shout Aloud, O Daughter Jerusalem!
See, your king comes to you,
righteous and victorious,
lowly and riding on a donkey,
on a colt, the foal of a donkey.”
The Matthew author is the most keen to match events to a prophecy, even to the extent that he describes Jesus riding two animals, an ass and a colt. (This passage later led to the observation that Jesus had entered Jerusalem "like a circus clown on the back of two donkeys.)The circus act seems to have arisen because whoever wrote the book of Matthew followed the Greek version of the scriptures too literally. The original Jewish text employed parallelism, a poetic technique using repetition. In other words, the original Hebrew text envisaged only one animal. The Matthew author is thus caught in the act of arranging New Testament events to match his faulty understanding of the Old Testament.
Another important point here is that the prophecy concerns not the heavenly Christ, but an earthly King of the Jews. Also, as usual, the Matthew author's quotation is not exact.
How about the 2nd coming of Jesus? When was that supposed to take place according to the new testament?
Debunking the prophecy in MICAH 5:2 (5:14mins)
“But thou,
Bethlehem Ephratah,
though thou be little among the thousands of Judah,
yet out of thee shall come forth unto me that is to be ruler in Israel;
whose goings forth have been from of old, from everlasting. “
The authors of Matthew and Luke have unilaterally constructed contradictory stories to explain how Jesus of Nazareth came to be born not in Nazareth but in Bethlehem. For many Jews it would be unthinkable that God would have neglected to mention Jesus of Nazareth more explicitly in the scriptures if he was indeed who he claimed to be. The Matthew author remedied God's omission by inventing his own prophecy. He relates that Jesus went to live in Nazareth " ...that it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the prophets, He shall be called a Nazarene" (Matthew 2:23). There is no such prophecy in any Jewish scripture but, as the writer must have known, it would be almost impossible for his readers to disprove his assertion that there was. Even those who could read did not have access to the scriptures, because they were not available for public reference. Other purported prophecies do not exist either.
“But thou,
Bethlehem Ephratah,
though thou be little among the thousands of Judah,
yet out of thee shall come forth unto me that is to be ruler in Israel;
whose goings forth have been from of old, from everlasting. “
The authors of Matthew and Luke have unilaterally constructed contradictory stories to explain how Jesus of Nazareth came to be born not in Nazareth but in Bethlehem. For many Jews it would be unthinkable that God would have neglected to mention Jesus of Nazareth more explicitly in the scriptures if he was indeed who he claimed to be. The Matthew author remedied God's omission by inventing his own prophecy. He relates that Jesus went to live in Nazareth " ...that it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the prophets, He shall be called a Nazarene" (Matthew 2:23). There is no such prophecy in any Jewish scripture but, as the writer must have known, it would be almost impossible for his readers to disprove his assertion that there was. Even those who could read did not have access to the scriptures, because they were not available for public reference. Other purported prophecies do not exist either.
never bother to watch lah...............is it they mentioned Bishop Eusebius and historian Josephus ?...................already proven to be a forgery and Eusebius is a total fraud.........
You mean Josephus was a fraud? Please explain sir.
Debunking the prophecy in Daniel 9:25 (11:15mins)
“Know therefore and understand,
that from the going forth of the commandment to restore and to build Jerusalem unto the Messiah the Prince shall be seven weeks,
and threescore and two weeks: the street shall be built again,
and the wall, even in troublous times.”
The final week of Daniel 9 applies to the persecution of the Jews by Antiochus Epiphanes and the Maccabean Revolt from 171 BC to 163 BC. The resurrection of the dead and the restoration of Israel should have occurred in 163 BC, and of course the prediction failed.
There are two "anointed ones," the first and the last legitimate high priests after the Exile. At the beginning of the sixty-two weeks, "an anointed one, a prince" appeared. This is Joshua the son of Jehozadak, the first high priest after the Babylonian Exile in 538 BC (Ezra 3:2; 5:2; Nehemiah 12:1,8; Haggai 1:1,12,14; Zechariah 3:1; 6:11). At the end of the sixty-two weeks, "an anointed one" was "cut off." This is Onias III, the last legitimate high priest, assassinated on the eve of the Maccabean War in 171 BC (2 Maccabees 4:33-38). Jerusalem would be rebuilt after the exile, and true high priests would serve in its Temple for sixty-two weeks, though the Jews would still be under foreign rule.
“Know therefore and understand,
that from the going forth of the commandment to restore and to build Jerusalem unto the Messiah the Prince shall be seven weeks,
and threescore and two weeks: the street shall be built again,
and the wall, even in troublous times.”
The final week of Daniel 9 applies to the persecution of the Jews by Antiochus Epiphanes and the Maccabean Revolt from 171 BC to 163 BC. The resurrection of the dead and the restoration of Israel should have occurred in 163 BC, and of course the prediction failed.
There are two "anointed ones," the first and the last legitimate high priests after the Exile. At the beginning of the sixty-two weeks, "an anointed one, a prince" appeared. This is Joshua the son of Jehozadak, the first high priest after the Babylonian Exile in 538 BC (Ezra 3:2; 5:2; Nehemiah 12:1,8; Haggai 1:1,12,14; Zechariah 3:1; 6:11). At the end of the sixty-two weeks, "an anointed one" was "cut off." This is Onias III, the last legitimate high priest, assassinated on the eve of the Maccabean War in 171 BC (2 Maccabees 4:33-38). Jerusalem would be rebuilt after the exile, and true high priests would serve in its Temple for sixty-two weeks, though the Jews would still be under foreign rule.
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