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Are sub-standard laws applicable only for Singaporeans?

Johnrambo

Alfrescian
Loyal
Will the Law Minister of Singapore explain in plain English why a Canadian defendant, if convicted of burglary would be spared the cane, while the same corporal punishment would be meted out against its own citizens?

I am referring to the Singapore Government’s assurance to the UK authorities on the extradition of David James Roach to Singapore, that if Roach were to be found guilty by a Singapore Court for robbery, he would not be caned. Roach was originally deported from Bangkok. Enroute to Canada, he landed in London in transit. Upon the request of the Singapore authorities, Roach was arrested in London pending extradition proceedings.

The UK government has a duty to ensure that its citizens and any defendant extradited from its shores would not be exposed to “inhumane and degrading treatment” if convicted. Caning as a form of judicial punishment is regarded as an inhumane and degrading practice. Caning was outlawed in the UK in 1948 as a form of judicial punishment.

By undertaking not to apply this form of judicial punishment to Roach in the event of conviction, the Singapore Government has effectively acknowledged that while the State could lawfully apply inhumane and degrading punishment to its own citizens, it would be in breach of international conventions if the same treatment is meted out to citizens of the United Kingdom.


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Are sub-standard laws applicable only for Singaporeans?
 
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