- Joined
- Feb 7, 2012
- Messages
- 23
- Points
- 0
Met up with a friend over the weekend and he is desperate for help.
He found out his wife was having an affair with 3 different men and filed for a divorce after confirming it with PI report. He ended up losing both his kids and having to pay the ex-wife 7 years of month maintenance in a lump sum. He was forced to move out of the flat and had been renting a room for 3 years. He couln't buy a flat because the flat not sold yet and the proceeding is very slow as the wife is fighting for everything he has with a whole lot of other allegations.
He paid for over 70% of the flat with his CPF while his ex-wife paid 25%. 5% still outstanding. A few months ago, the judgement was out and he was granted 60% of the house and the ex-wife 40% but the catch is the money is divided from the flat sale price and not after the money was returned to the CPF (meaning not 60/40 of profit but 60/40 of the whole sales!). In the end, after selling the house and deducting his lawyer fee, he is still in debt of 20K while his ex-wife made more than 100K in profit.
Tell me where is the logic in this? This has been proven as I saw the court order.
He found out his wife was having an affair with 3 different men and filed for a divorce after confirming it with PI report. He ended up losing both his kids and having to pay the ex-wife 7 years of month maintenance in a lump sum. He was forced to move out of the flat and had been renting a room for 3 years. He couln't buy a flat because the flat not sold yet and the proceeding is very slow as the wife is fighting for everything he has with a whole lot of other allegations.
He paid for over 70% of the flat with his CPF while his ex-wife paid 25%. 5% still outstanding. A few months ago, the judgement was out and he was granted 60% of the house and the ex-wife 40% but the catch is the money is divided from the flat sale price and not after the money was returned to the CPF (meaning not 60/40 of profit but 60/40 of the whole sales!). In the end, after selling the house and deducting his lawyer fee, he is still in debt of 20K while his ex-wife made more than 100K in profit.
Tell me where is the logic in this? This has been proven as I saw the court order.